Practice Final Exam                                             

                                                                                                                Name:_________________________

 

Use the following list of enzymes to answer questions # 1-4.  Each answer can be used more than once.

                a). helicase,  b). DNA polymerase,  c). ligase,  d). primase,  e). RNA polymerase

 

1.  Catalyzes the synthesis of a new strand of DNA.      

 

2.  Enhances DNA strand separation during replication. 

 

3.  Covalently connects segments of DNA. 

 

4.  Synthesizes a short RNA molecule during DNA replication. 

 

Use the following to answer questions # 5-9.  Answers can be used more than once.

                a). Hershey and Chase,  b). Chargaff's rules,  c). Watson and Crick,  d). Meselson and Stahl,  e). none              of the above

 

5.  This/these investigator(s) found that [pyrimidines] = [purines]. 

 

6.  The model for B form DNA was described by _______. 

 

7.  ________ developed a vaccine for bacterial pneumonia. 

 

8.  That DNA is the transforming factor for bacteriophage was determined by _______. 

 

9.  If cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organisms, then adenine would make up what percent of the bases?

                a). 22%,  b). 44%,  c). 28%,  d). 56%,  e). can not be determined from the information provided.

 

10.  The problem of replicating the lagging strand -- that is, adding bases in apparently the 3' to 5' direction  -- is solved by DNA through the use of

                a). base pairing,  b). replication forks,  c). the unwinding enzyme, helicase,  d). Okazaki fragments, 

                e). topoisomerase

 

11.  When T2 phage viruses that infected bacteria make more viruses in the presence of radioactive sulfur, which of the following results?

                a.  the viral DNA is tagged by radioactivity

                b.  the viral proteins are tagged by radioactivity

                c.  the viral DNA is found to be of medium density in a centrifuge tube

                d.  they transfer their radioactivity to E. coli DNA

                e.  both viral DNA and viral proteins are tagged by radioactivity

 

12. Suppose one were provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine had been added.  What would happen is a cell replicated once in the presence of this radioactive base?  (Hint:  think semiconservative DNA replication)

                a.  one of the daughter cells, but not the other would have radioactive DNA

                b.  neither of the 2 daughter cells would be radioactive

                c.  all 4 bases of the DNA would be radioactive

                d.  radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine

                e.  DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive

 

 

13.  In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, bacteria were grown in medium containing 15N and were then transferred to a medium containing 14N.  Which of the results would be expected after 2 semiconservative DNA replication in 14N?

               

 

14.  It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its

                a). sequence of bases,  b). phosphate-sugar backbones,  c). complementary base pairing,  d). side groups       of nitrogenous bases,  e). different 5 carbon sugars

 

15.  What is required for the catalytic activity of DNA polymerase?

                a). H-bonding between base pairs,  b). sealing the ends of DNA strands,  c). free 3' -OH group of the               phosphate group,  d). DNA degradation,  e). free 3' -OH group of the 5 carbon sugar

 

16.  What is the relationship between DNA, genes and chromosomes?

                a.  a chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of protein

                b.  a chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of DNA

                c.  a gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of protein

                d.  a gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome

                e.  a gene contains hundred of chromosomes, which are composed of DNA

 

17.  The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms.   a).  T,  b).  F

 

18.  Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase on DNA?

                a). structural gene region,  b). initiation region,  c). promoter region,  d). operator,  e). regulator

 

19.  What is an anticodon part of?   a). DNA,  b). tRNA,  c). mRNA,  d). ribosome,  e). spliceosome

 

20.  DNA can act as a template to self-replicate and make non-DNA molecules.  a).  T,  b). F

 

21.  RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

                a). contains ribose as its sugar,         b). is found only in the cytoplasm,  c). contains uracil instead of               thymine,  d). both A and C are correct,  e). A, B and C are correct

 

22.  Once transcribed, eukaryotic hnRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that includes

                a). excision of introns,  b). fusion into circular forms known as plasmids,  c). linkage to histone molecules

                d). union with ribosomes,  e). fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA

 

23.  A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long.  Which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the DNA that codes for this protein?  a). 3,  b).  100,  c). 300,  d). 900,  e). 1800

 

Use the following to answer questions #24-26 regarding a triplet in the coding sequence of DNA that is AGT.              

                a). AGT,  b). UCA,  c). TCA,  d). GAC,  e). TCA in eukaryotes, but UCA in prokaryotes.

 

24.  What is the corresponding triplet in the complementary strand of DNA? 

               

25.  The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is:  

 

26.  The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is:  

 

27.  What are the coding segments (i.e., eventually expressed) of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

                a). introns,  b). exons,  c). codons,  d). replicons,  e). anticodons 

 

28.  Which of the following helps stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?

                a.  TATA box,  b). spliceosome,  c).  introns,  d).  snRNPs,  e). poly A tail

 

Use the following to answer questions 29-33.  Answers can be used more than once.

                a). spliceosome,  b). RNA polymerase,  c). aminoacyl tRNA transferase,  d). peptidyl transferase, 

                e). none of the above

 

29.  This enzyme is involved in transcript processing. 

 

30.  This enzyme catalyzes covalent bond formation between a tRNA and its corresponding amino acid. 

 

31.  This enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino acids in translation. 

 

32.  This enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of transcript. 

 

33.  This enzyme provides structural features for the ribosome. 

 

34.  The E, P and A sites are found on/in

                a). ribosomes,  b). spliceosomes,  c). the nucleus,  d). nucleolus,  e). none of the above

 

35.  The direction of RNA and DNA synthesis is 5' to 3'.  a).  T,  b).  F

 

Match the following for questions #36-38:

                a). transcription,  b). transcript processing,  c). translation,  d). DNA replication

 

36.  DNA ->  DNA    

 

37.  hnRNA -> mRNA  

 

38.  mRNA -> protein 

 

39.  A part of a mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome:  5'-CCG-ACG-'3.  The following activated tRNA molecules are available.     

tRNA anticodon

Amino acid

 GGC

proline

 CGU

alanine

 CCG

threonine

 ACG

glycine

 ACG

cysteine

 CGG

alanine

 

The dipeptide that will form will be:

                a.  cysteine-threonine

                b.  proline-threonine

                c.  glycine-cysteine

                d.  alanine-glycine

                e.  threonine-glycine

 

40.  What are the chemical properties of atoms whose valance shells are filled?

                a.  they form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions

                b.  they form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions

                c.  they are particularly stable and unreactive

                d.  all of the above

 

41.  How many electrons does carbon have in its outermost (valence) energy level?

                a). 4,  b). 8,  c). 7,  d). 5,  e). 2

 

42.  The bonds between hydrogen and nitrogen in ammonia (NH4) are ___ bonds.

                a). nonpolar covalent,  b). polar covalent,  c). ionic,  d). simply covalent,  e). hydrogen

 

43.  How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) in 0.5 liters of water are required to make a 1 M solution? 

                a). 15,  b). 60,  c). 90,  d). 36,  e). none of the above

 

44.  What is the pH of a solution that has a hydrogen ion concentration of 10-3 moles per liter?

                a). 3,  b). 11,  c). 0,  d). -3,  e). -11

 

45.  The solution described in question #44 above is___.  a). acidic,  b). basic

 

46.  A chemist wishes to make an organic acid molecule less acidic.  Which of the following functional groups should she add to the molecule?

                a). carboxyl,  b). sulfhydryl,  c). hydroxyl,  d). amino,  e). phosphate

 

47.  The chemical reaction illustrated here results in the formation of

                a). peptide bonds,  b). ionic bonds,  c). glycosidic bonds,  d). hydrogen bonds,  e).  an isotope

 

 

48.  Which group of macromolecules are hydrophobic?

                a). proteins,  b). nucleic acids,           c). carbohydrates,  d). lipids

 

49.  The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which of the following groups?

                a). proteins, triglycerides and testosterone,  b). protein, ATP and DNA,  c). ATP, RNA and DNA,

                d). αglucose, ATP and DNA,  e). proteins, carbohydrates and ATP

 

50.  Which part of an amino acid determines it acidic, basic, hydrophobic or hydrophilic character?

                a). amino group,  b). carboxyl group,  c). central carbon,  d). -R group

 

51.  A condensation reaction to make polymers is the same as a dehydration reaction.  a). T,  b). F

 

 

52.  Which of the following is TRUE for both starch and cellulose?

                a). both contain nitrogen,  b). both contain oxygen,  c). both are polymers,  d). both are hydrophobic,

                e). both are found in proteins

 

53.  The shape of a molecule

                a). determines its biological function,  b). is determined by positions of its atoms,  c). determines how              molecules recognize and respond to each other,  d). may aid in the formation of bonds,  e). all of the     above

 

54.  The secondary structure in polypeptides can involve

                a). formation of β pleated sheets,  b). formation of α helices,  c). hydrogen bonding,  d). a and b,

                e). a, b and c

 

USE THE DIAGRAM BELOW TO ANSWER QUESTIONS # 55-58. 

(KNOW WHAT THESE STRUCTURES LOOK LIKE)

 

                a. molecular structure of a nitrogenous base in nucleic acids

                b. molecular structure of a polysaccharide

                c. molecular structure of a phopholipid

                d. molecular structure of a ring structure of glucose

                e. molecular structure of an amino acid

 

55.  Which molecule would be a structural component of cell membranes?  

 

56.  Which molecule would be one of the monosaccharides of the disaccharide table sugar? 

 

57.  Which is a component of DNA? 

 

58.  Which is a component of a polypeptide? 

 

59.  A ______ is amphipathic.  a). lipid,  b). phospholipid,  c). testosterone,  d). terpene,  e). nucleic acid

 

60.  Order the following organelles from small to large.

                a.  nuclei, width of plasma membrane, mitochondria, lysosome

                b.  width of plasma membrane, lysosome, mitochondria, nuclei

                c.  lysosome, mitochondria, nuclei, width of plasma membrane

                d.  width of plasma membrane, nuclei, mitochondria, lysosome

 

61.  Which of the listed functions are not performed by endoplasmic reticulum?

                a). provide compartmentalization,     b). production of lipid,  c). source of annulate lamellae,  d). protein            synthesis,  e). ATP production

 

62.  Microfilaments participate in the formation of

                a). cilia,  b). cell cleavage furrow,  c). flagella,  d). mitotic spindle,  e). basal bodies

 

63.  Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following?

                a).  lipids,  b). starches,  c). proteins,  d). steroids,  e). glucose

 

Use the following answers for questions # 64 -66.

                a). microfilaments,  b). microtubules,  c). intermediate filaments, 

 

64.  These are the smallest cytoskeletal element made up of actin.  

 

65.  These cytoskeletal element is made up of tubulin. 

 

66.  These cytoskeletal elements are intermediate in size.  

 

67.  The sodium-potassium pump maintains balance in the cell by pumping

                a). Na+ out and K+ in,  b). K+ out and Na+ in,  c). pumping both Na+ and K+ in,  d). pumping both

                Na+ and K+ out,  e). selectively blocking the passage of either ion in or out of the cell

 

68.  A plant cell in a hypotonic environment will

                a). plasmolyze,  b). shrivel,  c). become turgid,  d). become flaccid,  e). lyse

 

69.  Which of the following is CORRECT about diffusion?

                a.  it is very rapid over long distances

                b.  it requires an expenditure of energy by the cell

                c.  it is a passive process

                d.  it occurs when molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration

                e.  it requires integral membrane proteins in the cell membrane

 

70.  The plasma membrane is permeable to small ions like H+, K+, Ca++ and Na+.  a). T,  b). F

 

71.  One of the functions of cholesterol in animal plasma membranes is to

                a). facilitate transport of ions,  b). store energy,  c). maintain membrane fluidity, d). speed diffusion,

                e). phosphorylate ADP

 

72.  Catabolic pathways

                a). do not depend on enzymes,  b). consume energy to build up polymers from monomers,  c). release              energy as they degrade polymers to monomers,  d). lead to the synthesis of catabolic compounds

 

73.  A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is correctly described as:

                a). endergonic,  b). exergonic,  c). enthalpic,  d). spontaneous,  e). exothermic

 

74.  Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is FALSE?

                a.  enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts

                b.  enzymes specifically bind certain molecules

                c.  enzymes provide activation energy for the reactions they catalyze

                d.  the activity of enzymes can be regulated by factors in their immediate environment

                e.  an enzyme may be used many times over for a specific reaction

 

75.  According to the first law of thermodymamics,

                a.  matter can neither be created nor destroyed

                b.  energy is neither created nor destroyed

                c.  all processes increase the entropy of the universe

                d.  systems rich in energy are intrinsically unstable

                e.  the universe loses energy because of friction

 

76.  When NAD+ gains an electron, it is______.  a). oxidized,  b). reduced

 

77.  Energy rich compounds have lots of electrons.  a).  T,  b).  F

 

78.  A general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to another molecule is

                a). phosphorylase,  b). phosphatase,  c). kinase,  d). ATPase,  e). none of the above            

 

79.  In photosynthesis, oxygen is one of the first products made.  Oxygen is formed by the splitting of ___

                a). ATP,  b). glucose,  c). water,  d). NADPH,  e). photons

 

80.  What unique metabolic pathways occur in chloroplasts? 

                a). Calvin cycle,  b). oxidative phosphorylation, c). light reactions of photosynthesis,  d). a, b and c, 

                e). a and c only

 

81.  The primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis is

                a). to produce energy rich glucose from carbon dioxide and water,  b). to produce ATP and NADPH,               c). to produce NADPH used in respiration,  d). to convert light energy to the chemical energy of G3P,       e).  to use ATP to make glucose

 

82.  In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + Pi to ATP?

                a.  energy released as NADH donates its electrons to the electron transport chain

                b.  energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation

                c.  energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions against their concentration gradient

                d.  energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase

                e.  no external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic

 

83.  Assume that a thylakoid is punctured so that the interior is no longer separated from the stroma.  This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?

                a). splitting of water,  b). the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll,  c). the flow of electrons from              photosystem II to photosystem I,  d). the synthesis if ATP,  e). the reduction of NADP+

 

84.  Which of the following are products of the Calvin cycle and are utilized in the light reactions of photosynthesis?

                a). CO2 and glucose,  b). H2O and O2,  c). ADP, Pi, NADP+,  d). electrons and H+,  e). both c and d      are           correct

 

85.  Phosphofructokinase is an important regulatory enzyme.  Which of the following statements concerning this enzyme is FALSE?

                a). it is activated by citrate,  b). it is inhibited by ATP,  c). it is activated by ADP,  d). it is a coordinator            of the process of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,  e). it is an allosteric enzyme

 

86.  Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ___ and in this step gain ___.

                a). lactate; ATP,  b). alcohol: CO2,  c). alcohol; ATP,  d). ATP; NAD+,  e). lactate; NAD+

 

87.  Starting with 1 acetyl CoA molecule, what is the maximum number of ATP molecules that could be made by substrate-level phosphorylation?   a). 1,  b). 2,  c). 11,  d). 12,  e). more than 20

 

88.  The MPF protein complex turns itself off by

                a). activating an enzyme that destroys cyclin,  b). activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin,  c). binding      to chromatin,  d). exiting the cell,  e). none of these is true;  MPF is always active

 

89.  What is the primary activity that occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

                a). the chromosomes separate,  b). RNA and proteins are synthesized,  c). DNA replicates,  d). the    mitochondria divide

 

90.  What is a karyotype?   a). the phenotype of an individual,  b). the genotype of an individual,  c). a unique               combination of chromosomes found in a gamete,  d). the kind of nucleus a cell has,  e). a method of             organizing the homologous chromosome in relation to their number and type

 

91.  Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes?  a). an unfertilized egg cell,  b). a sperm cell,  c). a male somatic cell,  d). a female somatic cell,

                e).  both a and d are correct

 

92.  After completion of telophase I of meiosis, what is the chromosomal make-up of each daughter cell?

                a.  diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of single chromatid chromosomes

                b.  diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of 2 chromatids

                c.  haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of single chromatid chromosomes

                d.  haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of 2 chromatids

                e.  tetraploid, and the chromosomes are composed of 2 chromatids

 

93.  Which of the following terms belongs with the words: synapsis, tetrads and chiasmata?

                a). haploid,  b). crossing over,  c). autosomes,  d). prophase II,  e). fertilization

 

94.  If 2 parents, one blood type A and the other blood type B, but both heterozygous, have a child, what chance does that child have of being blood type O?  a).  0%,  b). 25%,  c). 50%,  d). 75%,  e). 100%

 

95.  Black fur in mise (B) is dominant to brown fur (b).  Short tails (T) is dominant to long tails (t).  What proportion of the progeny of the cross BbTt X BBtt will have black fur and long tails?

                a). 1/16.  b). 3/16.  c). 6/16.  d). 8/16.  e). 9/16

 

96.  What does independent assortment refer to?

                a.  the separation of alleles in anaphase I

                b.  the random arrangement of chromosomal tetrads at metaphase I

                c.  the separation of chromatids at anaphase II

                d.  the random arrangement of gene loci on a chromosome

                e.  the fact that any pair of chromatids in a tetrad can cross over

 

97.  There is good evidence for linkage when

                a.  2 genes occur together in the same gamete

                b.  a gene is associated with a specific phenotype

                c.  2 genes work together to control a specific character

                d.  genes do not segregate independently during meiosis

                e.  the fact that any pair of chromatids in a tetrad can cross over

 

98.  A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans.  A woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color blind male.  What is the probability that this couple's son will be color blind?  a). 0%,   b). 25%,  c). 50%,  d). 75%,  e). 100%

 

100.  All of the following were determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA EXCEPT

                a.  the diameter of the double helix

                b.  the helical shape of the molecule

                c.  the specificity of base pairing

                d.  the linear distance required for one full turn of the double helix

                e.  the angle between bases